This is not to say that people of faith are inherently delusional. I think that faith can coexist with rational thought in some instances. However, when one embraces certain fundamental tenets of a religion (like the biblical law for consequences of the act of rape) as divinely inspired and correct, I think that it is perfectly fair to assert that the individual who holds those tenets to be truth is delusional.
But what causes these delusions? What is the difference between a person who asserts that unicorns are following them in order to steal their blood--a person locked up in a mental ward--and a person who asserts that the entirety of the bible (or any religious text) is divinely inspired, complete and utter truth? A person with an otherwise normal life?
Earlier today I did some research on a molecule called dimethyltryptamine (DHT). Research on the compound's relationship with schizophrenia is fairly shaky--some research suggests that DHT, along with (S)-ketamine, produces positive (for the former) and negative (for the latter) symptoms of schizophrenia in otherwise healthy subjects. Positive symptoms include illogical/disorganized thinking, while negative symptoms include behaviors such as catatonia. Other research suggests that DHT has no such effect--however, the subjects utilized in this particular study were experienced drug users.
Experimental research aside, DHT is extremely interesting on its own. We humans produce it in our brains naturally, and it's been implicated in a wide variety of theories, from evolution (we need a little paranoia about things in the dark) to alien abduction. According to the research cited previously, too much DHT can be a bad thing--additionally, further research suggests that DHT may be mediated by oxytocin, a neurotransmitter/hormone which has been implicated in the concepts of morality and trust, among many other things.
Perhaps, then, the difference between delusionally religious individuals and individuals with schizophrenia may be that those with schizophrenia have an overabundance of both DHT and (S)-ketamine, and an under-abundance of oxytocin, while the former simply have too much DHT and too little oxytocin. Interestingly enough, DHT is said to produce transient hallucinations and feelings of being in the presence of divinity. Perhaps for the religious, this is a case of a self-fulfilling prophecy: the individual comes into the "house of the Lord" and more DHT is released, giving that individual the feeling of being in the presence of the divine. Perhaps the release of DHT impedes the reception of oxytocin, rather than it being the other way around, and messages which would otherwise be morally reprehensible in any other state become perfectly acceptable because the individual lacks their normative capacity for empathy in that state. This, however, is pure speculation on my part.
Your writing is not good.
ReplyDeleteWhat about it is not good? If you are going to offer constructive criticism, I would appreciate specifics.
ReplyDeleteI understand your point, and there are some people who are delusional and religious.
ReplyDeleteThe bible passage in question, though, is not detailing what happened to men who raped women. The "translations" that use the word rape are mistaken.
Some bible translations are flawed, some have been changed so that they can be copy-written so that the companies that commissioned the translations can turn a profit, some have been "translated" by people who have been active opponents of the bible. I believe that the original KJV is the only one that is completely without flaw.
If you read the rest of the passage in the KJV, it states that rape should be thought of as murder stating, "as when a man riseth against his neighbour, and slayeth him, even so is this matter." Deuteronomy 22:26
This passage is a restatement of laws that are also written in Exodus and the wording of this particular one is a little clearer in Exodus 22:16 "And if a man entice a maid that is not betrothed, and lie with her, he shall surely endow her to be his wife." This passage is talking about seduction, in which the virgin chooses to be with a man to whom she is not engaged, in which case they have to marry.
In fact, there are many instances in the bible in which the man who rapes a woman is killed, along with anyone who tried to protect him.
- e.g. Genesis 34, 2 Samuel 13 (in which the girl is too scared to testify but Kind David is gratified when the rapist is killed), Judges 19 starting in verse 22 and continuing through to Judges 21 (in which there is a civil war among the tribes of Israel to bring to justice the men who raped one woman).
I will have to read up more on the KJV! Even then, though, I would question these laws that state that two consenting individuals who had intercourse must be married. Thank you for the information!
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